UPSC EXAMINATION NOTICE AND FILLING UP OF ONLINE APPLICATION FORM:

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS

Q 1. When is the Examination Notice issued?

Answer – UPSC Examination Notices encapsulate the Rules of Examinations
notified by the Government. Examination Notices of all the 13 Structured
Examinations are uploaded on the Commission’s website around 3 months
before the date of Examination. Examination Notices (indicative) are also
published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar.

Q 2. What is the UPSC’s Annual Programme (Calendar) of
Examinations/RTs (Recruitment Tests)?

Answer – The UPSC publishes an Annual Programme (Calendar) of all the
Structured Examinations/RTs conducted by it at least 6 months in advance
(i.e. in June) for the Examinations/RTs to be conducted during the next
calendar year. The Programme is uploaded on the UPSC’s website as also
published in the leading newspapers of the country. The date of issue of
Examination Notice for each Examination is also mentioned in this Annual
Programme.

Q 3. How to apply for Examinations conducted by the UPSC?

Answer – Candidates can apply online for the UPSC Examinations by
accessing the online portal hosted on the UPSC’s website
(https://upsconline.nic.in).

Q 4. How much time is given to the candidates for applying online?

Answer – Time for applying online is clearly mentioned in the Examination
Notice. A candidate gets about 3 weeks time to apply online and can fill up
the online application by following the instructions provided on the website
for filling up online application.

Q 5. What happens if a candidate submits multiple online
applications?

Answer – While a candidate should avoid submitting more than one online
application, in case of doing so, the data provided in the last application
(highest RID Number), that is successfully submitted online, is accepted by
the Commission. All previous applications are ignored as these are
amalgamated with the last completed & finally submitted application. If an
applicant (who has already submitted an application successfully) wants to
make amendments in the application, then he has to submit a fresh
application on or before the last date of submission of the application of the
Examination. Therefore, it must be ensured that fee is submitted against the
last online application only, which should also be complete in all respects
including its final submission. The fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted
against any other RID number.

Q 6. When should I apply if I choose to pay by Bank Challan?

Answer – The closing date of submission of online application is clearly
mentioned in the Examination Notice. Candidates, who make payments
through Bank Challan, are required to submit the online application at least a
day before the notified closing date so that they can generate the Bank
Challan to be submitted in any Branch of SBI within Bank working hours
throughout India. The facility of Challan generation is deactivated on the last day
of the online application automatically by the system. However, Candidates can
submit Bank Challan on the last day in any Branch of the SBI. Bank Challan
generation is in Part-II of Online Application.

Q 7. Which category of candidates is exempted from payment of
Examination fee?

Answer – For all the Examinations conducted by the Commission, Female
candidates, Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) and candidates
belonging to the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe categories are
exempted from payment of Examination Fee.

Q 8. What is meant by ‘Fictitious Payment’ or ‘No-Fee’?

Answer – Those payments mentioned by the candidates in their online
application, which is not authenticated by the State Bank of India, i.e. the
designated bank managing the entire payment module (including managing
the payment gateway), are called Fictitious Payments or No Fee.

Q 9. How does the Commission resolve Fictitious Payment or No Fee
cases?

Answer – The applicants, whose payments are marked fictitious, are
intimated through e-mail to submit physical proof of payment to the
Commission. These applicants are required to submit the proof within the
timeframe given in the email either by hand or by speed post to the
Commission. In case, no response is received from the applicants, their
applications are summarily rejected and no further correspondence is
entertained in this regard.

Q 10. What precautions must be taken by candidates for claiming
community reservation or reservation for Persons with Benchmark
Disabilities (PwBD)?

Answer – Candidates seeking reservation/ relaxation benefits available for
Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes/ Other Backward Classes/Economically
Weaker Sections/Persons with Benchmark Disabilities/Ex-servicemen must
ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/ relaxation in accordance
with the eligibility prescribed in the Examination Rules/Notice. They should
also, be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format
in support of their claims for availing reservation before applying for the
examination, and in any case, not later than the closing date for receipt of
applications for the examination.

Q 11. Can a candidate change his/her Community Status?

Answer – A candidate is eligible to get the benefit of community reservation
if his/her caste/tribe is included in the reserved community as may be
determined by the Central Government and him/she has claimed for the same.

The Commission does not entertain a request for change of community from
unreserved to the reserved category once the examination process is initiated.
However, in some exceptional cases where a particular caste/tribe is
included in the list of reserved community within 3 months from the date of
submission of application, the Commission may consider a request of change
of the community as a special case.

In case of a candidate, unfortunately, becoming physically disabled during the course of the examination process, the candidate should produce a valid document showing him/her acquiring a disability to the extent of 40% or
more as mentioned in the relevant rules to enable him/her to get the benefits
of PwBD reservation.

Q 12. Can a candidate change the Date of Birth from what he/she has submitted in the online application?

Answer – The Commission does not allow change of Date of Birth that has
been furnished by a candidate and recorded by the Commission on any
ground whatsoever.

Q 13. What action is taken by the Commission in case of submission of
false information by the candidates?

Answer – A candidate found to be furnishing false information to the
Commission or suppressing information, adopting various unfair means in
the Examination like impersonation, cheating, etc., is liable to be disqualified
and/or debarred from writing UPSC Examinations as decided by the
Commission. A detailed stipulation in this regard is incorporated in the Rules
of Examination/ Examination Notices.

e-ADMIT CARD:

Q 14. When are the e-Admit Cards issued?

Answer – The eligible candidates are issued e-Admit Cards around three
weeks before the commencement of the Examination. The e-Admit Cards are
made available on the UPSC website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for
downloading by the candidates. The Admit Card is not sent by post.

If a candidate is not issued his/her e-Admit Card or does not receive any
other communication regarding his/her candidature for the Examination
around three weeks before the commencement of the examination, he/she
should immediately contact the Commission at the concerned email ID.
Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter
located in the Commission’s Office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-
23381125/011- 23385271/011-23098543.

Q 15. What is the procedure adopted for allotment of Roll Numbers,
Centre and Venues to the candidates?

Answer – Allotment of Roll Numbers and Venues to the eligible candidates is
carried out through computer in a random manner without manual
intervention. The Commission makes all efforts to allow the candidate the
Centre of his/her choice, which is done on the “first-apply-first allot” basis.
Once the capacity of a particular Centre is exhausted, the same shall not be
available to the applicants as an option.

The applicants shall, therefore, be required to choose one of the available Centres. It is, thus, advised to apply early for getting the choice Centre. However, it may be noted that The commission may change the Centres of the candidates as per its discretion
to address the special situations arising at that point in time.

Q 16. Are requests for change of Centre/ Venue accepted?

Answer – The candidates should note that no request for change of Centre /
The venue is accepted.

Q 17. Can a candidate appear at a Centre/Venue other than the Venue
mentioned his/her e-Admit Card?

Answer – No candidate is allowed to appear at a Centre/Venue other than
the Centre/Venue mentioned by the Commission in his/her e-Admit Card. If
a candidate appears at such a Centre/Venue (except by court order), the
papers of that candidate shall not be evaluated and his/her candidature will
be liable for cancellation.

Q 18. What are the precautions to be taken while uploading candidates’
photographs and signatures?

Answer – Before filling up the Online Application, a candidate must have
his/her photograph and signature duly scanned in the “JPG” format in such
a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB and must not be less than
20 KB. The photograph and signature must be clearly discernible. Samples
of acceptable photograph and signature are displayed in the application
module.

Candidates should take due care while uploading their photograph since no
changes are allowed once the photograph is uploaded and online application
is submitted. Uploading of photograph/signature is the sole responsibility of
the candidate and in case a wrong photograph/signature is uploaded,
his/her candidature is liable to be cancelled for false identity.

Candidates should check the e-Admit Card carefully and discrepancies/
errors, if any, should be brought to the notice of the UPSC immediately.

Q 19. What items are banned at the Examination Venues during Examinations and during the conduct of the Personality Tests (Interviews) in the UPSC premises?

Answer – (a) Mobile phones (even in switched off mode), any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart
watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related
accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as
a communication device or any other communication devices and IT gadgets,
are banned items and are, therefore, not allowed inside the premises of the
The venue where the Examination is being conducted as also in the UPSC
premises during conduct of the Personality Tests (Interview).

Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including
cancellation of candidature for that Examination and debarment from all
future Examinations/Selections of the Commission.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned
items including mobile phones/Bluetooth devices etc. (as detailed above) to
the Venue of the Examination and the UPSC premises when the examination
process is underway.

(c) Candidates are also advised not to bring any valuable/expensive items to
the Examination Halls/UPSC premises, as the safety of such items cannot be
assured. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

Q 20. Is it essential to carry Photo ID Card for appearing at an
Examination/Interview?

Answer – The applicant is required to fill in the number of the Photo ID Card
(viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Any
other Photo ID Card issued by the Central/State/UT Government) and to
upload the same while filling up the online application form of an
Examination of the Commission.

The above number of the Photo ID Card is printed on the e-Admit Card of the Examination issued to the candidate. The candidate is then required to carry the same Photo ID Card along with the admit Card/e-Summon Letter for appearing at the Examination/Interview.
This Photo ID Card will be used for all future references.

In case he/she is unable to produce the same during Examination/Interview, he/she will have to submit an Undertaking along with any other Photo ID Card issued by the
Central/State/UT Government.

Q 21. What is the timing for reporting at the Examination Venue and
time of closure of entry into the Examination Venue?

Answer – The candidates are advised to reach the venue well in time so that their entry inside the Examination Venue could be ensured smoothly after observing the necessary protocol. As regard time for closure of entry, the candidate may note that the entry into the Examination Venue is closed 10 minutes before the commencement of the Examination Session e.g. if Session starts at 10:00 a.m., the entry inside the Examination Venue shall be closed sharp at 09:50 a.m.

REASONS FOR REJECTION OF ONLINE APPLICATIONS:

Q 22. What precautions should be taken while filling up the Online
Application Form?

Answer – Please read the instructions carefully before filling up the Online
Application Form.

Q 23. What is RID?

Answer – RID is Registration ID, which is generated by the system when the
the applicant completes PART-I registration of his/her application.

Q 24. What is TID?

Answer – TID is Transaction ID, which is given by the State Bank India when
the applicant deposits his/her fee in cash. It is automatically generated when
Internet Banking or credit/debit card mode is used for making the fee
payment.

Q 25. What is meant by Part I and Part II of the Application Form?
Answer – Online Application Form consists of two parts i.e. Part I and Part II.

  • Part I of the Application has personal details like name, father’s/mother’s name, date of birth, address, educational qualification, age relaxation, scribe details (only for PwBD candidates opting for scribe) and preferences of particular Examination etc. The applicants are also required to mention the number of Photo ID Card.
  •  Part II of the Application consists of a payment option for Examination
    Fee (only for those who are not exempted from payment of fee), Centre
    of Examination along with uploading of photo, signature and photo ID
    card of the candidate.
  • Candidate has to complete both Parts I and Part II and submit finally to be a candidate of the said Examination.

Q 26. Non-filling up of Part II/Non-submission of the fee.

Answer – If only PART-I of the application is submitted without submitting
PART-II, the application remains incomplete and candidature cannot be
registered. The application is incomplete even in cases where the applicant
has submitted PART-I and paid the fee as well, but has not completed PART-II
(i.e. failed to submit Centre, photograph, signature and photo ID card).

Q 27. What are the steps in PART-II registration?

Answer – Part II registration comprises of following steps:-

1. Fee payment (only for candidates not exempted from payment of fee).
2. Choosing of the Examination Centre from the available drop-down menu.
3. Uploading of photograph, signature and photo ID card.
4. Agreeing to the Declaration.

Q 28. Not submitting the choice of Centre.

Answer – The online system will not allow the candidate to submit the form if he/she has left the choice of Centre blank in Part II and status of the application will remain “not submitted”. Thus, he/she will not be the candidate of that particular Examination. Therefore, candidates are advised to click on the “submit” button after selecting the Examination Centre.

Q 29. Non Payment of Fee.

Answer – Non-payment of Fee (if not exempted from fee payment) will lead
to cancellation of the candidature.

Q 30. Entering wrong TID in case of payment through Bank Challan.

Answer – It is seen that some candidates who submit their fee through Bank
Challan either enters the wrong TID or submit an old TID. It has also been
observed that submission of multiple applications is followed by either nonpayment of fee OR fee particulars (TID) of one application (RID) being
mentioned against another application with a different RID. This leads to
the rejection of the online application.

Q 31. Swapping of Photograph and Signature or their poor quality.

Answer – Poor quality of uploaded photograph and signature or swapping of
the same will lead to complications in future. Therefore, candidates are
advised to peruse the relevant instructions carefully regarding acceptable
photograph/ signature in the application module at the time of application.

CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION:

Q 32. What is the structure of the Civil Services Examination?

Answer – The Civil Services Examination (CSE) comprises of two successive
stages: the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (CSP) and the Civil
Services (Main) Examination (Written and Interview).

CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION:

Q 33. What is the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination?

Answer – UPSC conducts Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and other Central Services and posts in accordance with the Rules published by the Government (Department of Personnel & Training) in the Gazette of India
Extraordinary.

This Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only; the marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the candidates, who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination, are not counted for determining their final order of merit. Only those candidates, who are declared by the Commission to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination in the year, will be eligible to appear at the Main Examination of that year
provided they are otherwise eligible for admission to the Main Examination.

Q 34. Is an attempt at the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination counted as an attempt at the Civil Services Examination?

Answer – (i) An attempt at a Preliminary Examination shall be taken as an
attempt at the Civil Services Examination. (ii) If a candidate actually appears
in any one paper in the Preliminary Examination, it shall be taken as an
attempt at the Examination. (iii) Notwithstanding the disqualification/
cancellation of candidature, the fact of appearance of the candidate at the
The examination will count as an attempt.

Q 35. If a candidate has applied for the Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination but has not appeared at any paper in the Civil Services
(Preliminary) The examination will be counted as an attempt?

Answer – No, an attempt is counted only if a candidate has appeared in at
least one paper in the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination.

Q 36. What is the scheme of the Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination?

Answer – The Examination is comprised of two compulsory papers of 200
marks each.

(i) Both the question papers are of objective type (multiple choice
questions).

(ii) The question papers are set in Hindi and English.

(iii) Details of the syllabi are provided in the Examination Notice and Gazette Notification
published by the Government.

(iv) Each paper is of two hours duration.

Q 37. Is the General Studies Paper-II of qualifying nature? What are
the Cut-off Marks for this Paper?

Answer – Yes, the General Studies Paper-II is of qualifying nature. The
minimum qualifying standards in this Paper is indicated in the Examination
Rules and at present, it is 33%.

 

Q 38. Is there any negative marking at the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination?

Answer – Candidates should note that there is a penalty (negative marking) for
wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination.

There are four alternatives for the answers to every question.

(i) For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the
candidate, one-third (1/3rd) of the marks assigned to that question is
deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it is treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above for that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no penalty for that question.

Q 39. What are the minimum educational qualifications prescribed?

Answer – The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities
incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or any
other educational institution established by an Act of Parliament or declared
to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants
Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.

 

Q 40. What are the eligibility criteria in terms of physical requirements/
functional classification required for a Service/ Post?

Answer – The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities candidates shall also be required to meet eligibility criteria in terms of physical requirements/functional classifications abilities/disabilities) consistent with the requirements of the identified Service/Post as may be prescribed by its Cadre Controlling Authorities.

The details of physical requirements and functional classifications are given in the Rules/Notice of the Examination.

Q 41. What information should be given by persons already in Government Service to their Head of Office?

Answer – Persons already in Government Service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Sector Enterprises, are required to submit an undertaking that they have informed their Head of Office/Department, in writing, that they have applied for the Examination.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer, by the Commission, withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the Examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

Q 42. What are the provisions regarding community reservation and
change of community?

Answer – A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular community/caste/tribe to which the candidate belongs is included in the list of reserved communities issued by the Central Government.

If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination that he/she belongs to General category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the Commission.

Similar principle will also be followed for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities candidates. However, in some exceptional cases where a particular caste/tribe is included in the list of reserved community within 3 months from the date of submission of application, the Commission may consider a request of change of community as a special case.

In case of a candidate, unfortunately, becoming physically disabled during the
the course of the examination process, the candidate should produce valid
document showing him/her acquiring a disability to the extent of 40% or
more as mentioned in the relevant rules to enable him/her to get the benefits
of PwBD reservation.

Q 43. What are the provisions for reservation for SC, ST, OBC, EWS and PwBD candidates?

Answer – Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled
Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker
Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disabilities candidates in respect of
vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.

CIVIL SERVICES (MAIN) EXAMINATION:

Q 44. Can a candidate choose an optional subject, which he has not
studied at graduate/post-graduate level?

Answer – Yes.

Q 45. Which is the language/medium of question papers?

Answer – The question papers (other than the literature of language papers)
are set in Hindi and English.

Q 46. Can a candidate write different papers of Civil Service (Main)
Examination in different languages?

Answer – No, the Candidates have the option to write their answers either in
English or in any one of the Eighth Schedule languages except the Qualifying
Language papers Paper-A and Paper-B, which they have indicated at the time
of filling up of their online application form for the Civil Service (Preliminary)
Examination.

Q 47. How are the Question Papers for the Civil Services (Main) Examination structured? What is the duration of each paper?

 

Answer – The question papers for the examination are of conventional (essay) type. Each paper is of three hours duration.

Q 48. Can a candidate write the Civil Service (Main) Examination in
English and take the interview in Hindi or any other Indian language?

Answer – The candidates, opting for Indian Language medium for the written part of the Civil Services (Main) Examination may choose either the same  Indian Language or English or Hindi as the medium for the interview.

The candidates, opting to write the Civil Services (Main) Examination in English, may choose either English or Hindi or any other Indian Language opted by them for the compulsory Indian Language Paper in the written part of the Civil Services (Main) Examination, as the medium for interview.

The candidate has to indicate the language medium of the interview at the time of filling up of the Detailed Application Form (DAF) However, the candidates, who are exempted from the compulsory Indian Language Paper, will have to choose either English or Hindi as the medium of Interview or Personality Test.

Q 49. What are the Cut-off Marks for the compulsory language
Papers?

Answer – The minimum qualifying standards in each of the two Qualifying
Papers i.e. English and Indian Languages is indicated in the Examination
Rules is at present 25%.

Q 50. Is the Indian language Paper compulsory for candidates hailing
from the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Nagaland and Sikkim?

 

Answer – The Paper A on Indian Language is not compulsory for candidates hailing from the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim. In the Online Application, if a candidate hails from these North-Eastern States, the option for Indian Language will automatically be disabled in the Online Application.

Q 51. Is the Indian language Paper compulsory for Persons with
Benchmark Disabilities categories?

Answer – Yes, Paper A on Indian Language is compulsory for candidates belonging to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities category. However, it will not be compulsory for the candidates suffering from Hearing Impairment provided they have been granted such exemption from 2nd or 3rd language courses by the concerned Education Board/University. The candidate needs to provide an undertaking/self-declaration in this regard in order to claim such an exemption to the Commission.

Q 52. What marks are reckoned for merit ranking in the written part of
the Civil Services (Main) Examination?

Answer – Marks obtained by the candidates for the Papers I-VII only will be
counted for merit ranking (of those candidates who obtain the specified
minimum marks in the qualifying papers). However, the Commission has the
discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all of these papers.

OTHER IMPORTANT ITEMS:

Q 53. What is the Disclosure Scheme?

Answer – This Scheme for disclosing the scores and other details of the non recommended candidates was implemented with the Combined Medical Services Examination-2017. The Scheme covers non-recommended willing candidates, who appeared at the Interview/SSB Stage of a Commission’s Examination.

Details of such candidates which are disclosed at the Commission’s Website (further linked to the NCS Portal of the M/o Labour & Employment) are – Name of the candidate, Father’s/Husband’s Name, Date of Birth, Category, Gender, Educational Qualifications, Total marks etc, arranged in Roll Number Order.

The objective of the Scheme is to provide a useful database to other employers to enable them to identify good employable candidates. This information of an Examination remains
available for one year from the date of disclosure.

Q 54. What is the Representation Portal of the Commission on the
questions asked in an Examination?

Answer – (a) For each Examination, a time frame of 7 days (a week) i.e. from
the next day of the Examination Date to 6.00 p.m. of the 7th day is fixed for
the candidates to make representations to the Commission on the questions
asked in the Papers of that Examination. No representation shall be accepted
under any circumstances after this window of 7 days is over.

(b) In the case of Single Day Examinations, for example, if the Examination is
held on 1st March, then the representations can be submitted from 2nd
March to 8th March (till 6:00 p.m.).

(c) For Multi-Days Examinations, the date on which the last Paper of that
The examination is held, will be the crucial reckoning date for making
representations on the questions asked in all the Papers of that Examination.
For example: if last Paper of a Multi-Days Examination is conducted on 1st
July whereas the first Paper of that Examination is held on 29th June, then
the candidates can submit representations from 2nd July to 8th July (till 6:00 p.m.) for all the Papers of that Examination.

(d) Such representation must be submitted through the “Online Question
Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)” only by accessing the URL:
http://upsconline.nic.in/miscellaneous/QPRep/ This Portal will be available
for submitting representations from the next day after the Examination is
concluded. No representation by email/post/hand or by any other mode shall
be accepted.

EVALUATION OF CONVENTIONAL PAPERS:

Q 55. After the written examination, on what criterion is the answer
books sent for evaluation?

Is it on Roll No. basis or based on the centre of examination?

That is, will a particular examiner/ set of examiners get to evaluate answer books only of a particular centre or a particular group of Roll Nos.?

 

Answer – Mixing of the answer books received from different venues is done
before sending them for evaluation. Computer-based randomized fictitious
code no. is given to each answer-book before evaluation.

Q 56. Are answer books segregated/ sorted based on the community of the
candidate?

Answer – This is not done at any stage of the evaluation process.

Q 57. Is it likely that my evaluated performance suffers because my
answer books were evaluated by a ‘strict’ examiner, while another
candidate benefits as his answer books were evaluated by a ‘liberal’
examiner?

Answer – To achieve uniformity in valuation, where more than one Examiner is involved, the Commission arranges a meeting of the Head Examiner with the Additional Examiners after the Examination is over. At this stage, they discuss thoroughly the question paper, the appropriate answers and decide the standard of evaluation.

To further bring about uniformity of assessment inter se the Examiners, the following procedure is undertaken:

The Head Examiner conducts a sample survey of answer books of each Additional Examiner to verify whether the uniform standards of evaluation evolved in the meeting of Examiners have actually been followed.

Depending on the standard adopted by the Additional Examiner, the Head Examiner may confirm the awards without any change if the Examiner has correctly followed the standard decided upon or may carry out upward/ downward moderation as considered necessary to ensure the maximum possible degree of uniformity in the evaluation process.

Therefore, the aspect of inter-examiner variation in standards of evaluation in a Paper affecting candidates’ performance is taken care of adequately.

Q 58. Can I know the ‘question-wise’ marks awarded to me for a paper?

Answer – The evaluation process does not end after initial evaluation by an Examiner. Moderation, wherever applied, is on the total award initially given (the so-called ‘raw marks’) and not on a question-wise basis. Therefore, once the evaluation process is complete, neither ‘raw marks’ nor ‘question-wise marks’ subsist.

What subsists is the candidate’s total score in a paper awarded at the end of the evaluation process and this award is normally made available to the candidate in due course on the Commission’s website through query-based application software.

Further, in a competitive examination, what is relevant is not the absolute performance of a candidate, but his/ her relative performance that in fact determines whether the candidate qualifies and, if so, his/ her position in the merit list.

Q 59. If the overall marks of two or more candidates are equal, how is
relative merit between such candidates decided?

Answer – ‘Tie-breaking’ principles are applied to decide inter se merit among
candidates having the same overall marks.

Q 60. Wherever evaluation standards are set or moderation is applied,
are these different for different mediums (languages) in which a
particular subject/ paper Examination is written?

Answer – No. The evaluation standards/ moderation for a Paper are not medium-specific. In other words, if the Rules of the Exam provide that a Paper can be written in any of, say, English/ Hindi/ a recognized Indian language, then the medium in which a candidate writes the Paper will not be a factor in determining evaluation standards or the moderation to be applied.

Q 61. Is it possible that evaluation/ assessment could be affected by the knowledge of a candidates’ identity?

Answer – No. Before evaluation, the Roll No. written on every answer book is detached and computer-based randomized fictitious code no. is given. At no stage of the evaluation process (including the moderation stage) is the actual Roll No./ identity of the candidate known to any of the Examiners/ officials associated in the process.

Author

Write A Comment